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Pietro's avatar

I don't understand why the xetra-gold portion should be removed from the notional exposure to FX. Just because that ETC (4GLD) is denominated in euros doesn't mean it doesn't have dollar exposure. Unless you choose a hedged ETC, but that doesn't seem to be the case with the ETC you mentioned. Could you clarify and elaborate on this point?

Following your reasoning, even for exposure to VTI, an European retail investor would be better off choosing a euro-denominated ETF (because it's more cost-effective in terms of commissions). But my observation remains: the denomination currency has no connection with the exposure currency.

Thank you for any clarification you can provide.

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